Crosswords0 min ago
Literature
21 Answers
Would someone like to give an example of'Splitting one's infinitives'?
Answers
For what did he say it? To cleverly show the rest of us up!
19:09 Sat 31st Jan 2015
Split infinitives don't really exist in English, although many think they do. There can be no doubt that "To boldly go" has so much more impact than either "to go boldly" or "boldly to go", because the stresses hit the right place - da DAH da Da in the split version, as opposed to da Da DAH da or DAH da da Da, both of which don't run off the tongue nearly as nicely.
The whole reason splitting is/was considered gramatically incorrect is that the infinitive form of a verb should be perceived as ONE single unit - the fact that that unit consists of two words in English is irrelevant but causes the problem here because they can be split by an adverb. In virtually all other languages, the infinitive is one word. Not sure what you mean by 'don't exist in english' Jim360...
Explained here,
http:// www.oxf orddict ionarie s.com/w ords/sp lit-inf initive s
http://
-- answer removed --