In my opinion, I believe that artistic value of a painting and its price is more an ongoing process of social construction of reality and its deconstruction. It is my belief that there are many variables (perhaps too many for human understanding) to be considered. This is perhaps why such a question was asked. Insight comes out through these types of discussion. However, any one opinion or set of facts ipso facto can limit understanding, but also expand on it when looked at as "whole greater than the sum of its parts." I must say though that through a process such as this creates a desire to seek out new ideas on the subject and can, if thought through broadly enough inspire other ideas and facts. To me, we seem to already know that the artistic value of a painting is related to price by the very nature of the question. Why would a question as such even be posed if there wasn't already a relationship? The question then might be posed as, how does this relationship come about, or how is this relationship possible? My view point is one where we need to consider possible sources that have yet to be discussed, but are implicitly implied in the few opinions I have read (i.e. the sociology of art).
There are several sources for consideration, but I chose to mention the work "Art Worlds (Becker, 1982)." Howard Becker mentions in his Preface that his analysis is of the social organization, not of aesthetics (xi). In this way he treats art as relative to a lot of variables that relate to price, but not price in and of itself.