A man commits rape if—(a)he has sexual intercourse with a person (whether vaginal or anal) who at the time of the intercourse does not consent to it; and(b)at the time he knows that the person does not consent to the intercourse or is reckless as to whether that person consents to it.
.....a woman can be charged with, or convicted of rape as a secondary party. For example, a woman may be convicted of rape where she facilitated (helped) a man who has raped another person.
i'm fresh on this as I've just finished jury service and this was one of the counts on the indictment. this women had said she woke up and the defendant was on top of her, having sex with her. This constitutes rape as it was penetrative sex without her given consent.
as exdc posts, this is how is appeared on the indictment;
'B does not consent to the penetration, and.
A does not reasonably believe that B consents.'
So if a woman has sex with a man against his consent, what is that called if there is no penetration.... and yes i am anticipating the jokes but it is a serious query!
Good question BagpussAA and as Albags has stated its Causing Sexual Activity Without Consent (Sec 4 Sexual Offences Act 2003). This offence covers situations where, for example victim is forced to carry out a sexual act involving their own person, such as to engage in sexual activity with the offender e.g. woman forces a man to penetrate her.