A man and a woman have a relationship that fails, they break up and later the lady finds out she is pregnant (as a result of failed contraception).
A short while after the man involved becomes permanently sterile (and unfortunately did not have the ability to have any sperm frozen prior to this unfortunate event).
The man has a supportive family and happens to be rich, he has always wanted children.
The woman is 23 weeks pregnant and wishes an abortion (given the above statements some of you believe that there is no need to justify a reason for a TOP so hypothetically we'll assume that the woman simply never wants children but would otherwise not be inconvencienced by carrying the baby to full term)
The lady is fit and well and there are no anomalies with the baby.
Does nobody believe that this is a rather unfortunate