.You not crazy
ABers crazy - they not read question - (flipping out of inarticulate AB speak)......
You are really asking about the future discount value and if you google something like that
you will get the simply awful AAT site on
"net present value"
suppose you have a machine and you are repaying it at £100 / y ( cheap machine ) then the income is real stuff in that year but your repayment is discounted down
income first year - £250 - repayment £100
second year inc - £355 ( say) repayment £95
discounted at 5%
third year inc 233 say repayment now £92.5 - discounted twice at 5%
( and the whole shebang allows you to tell if it is a good deal or not)
so Buen Chico calcualtion is correct but forget the "inverse calculation crap" -
it would be 1000/1.673 - if the inflation figures given are correct - am I right is that £600 ? [ whatever one over one and two thirds is]
This is commonly done in accountancy ( where I failed all my exams - I put THAT at the quite terrible AAT's door) in the area called net present value calculations. Clearly I understood that bit.
If you are involved in CGT calculations - they did do the rebasing as you wanted and charts were available - but now that has stopped and you use the value at the year in which you bought.
In an exam they give you the discounted rate which accounts ( ha! ) that everyone is making a dogs ear of this - I will see if there are any charts out there in cyberspace
https://www.professionalpensions.com/professional-pensions/opinion/3033124/death-by-discount-rate-the-fundamental-flaws-of-the-accounting-approach-to-pension-scheme-valuation
https://www.aatcomment.org.uk/calculating-net-present-value/