Hi I sent a chq to one of our suppliers post dated for the 25th May. The supplier tried to bank the chq on the 18th May and it was bounced as there were not enough funds in the account to clear it (hence why I post dated it!) We have been charged �35 for the privelage, can the bank do this? Really the bank should have never accepted it in the first place when it was paid in?? I have also checked the bank account this morning and they have represented it and it looks like it has gone through - there are enough funds in now, however it still is not dated till the 25th! Can anyone give me any advice on this please? Thanks
Banks don't spend time checking the date, signature etc on every cheque.
But this issue begs the question- why do cheques have a date field to fill in?
Hmm, sound answer as usual, Kempie.
Maybe the date box should be shoved down the bottom RH side near the signature box - then we'd all know what it's real purpose is.
You need to clarify the terms of your account with the bank as in some cases writing a cheque knowing that there are insufficient funds to cover it can be viewed as fraudulent.