I would like clarification please on the following point.
I understand if you are made redundant you are only entitled to redundancy pay if you have been employed by the company for more than 2 years.
Am I correct in saying that if you have been employed for less than this timeframe, the company can make a payment to you as a goodwill gesture, but they are not legally obliged to do so?
That is correct.
See here
http://www.direct.gov...edundancy/DG_10029836
The company always also needs to either pay you for your notice period, or require you to work out the notice period (this is always a requirement in any dismissal situation, apart from summary dismissal)