My Partner & I are splitting up after 17 years together, never married, but 2 children.
He owned a house (no mortgage) when we met and invested his redundancy payment in our present house. We also have a mortgage on our present house which I pay. The mortgage and the property are in joint names.
He feels that I am not entitled to any of the property, except that part of the mortgage I have paid for. Is this correct?
no he is wrong wrong wrong, you are entitled to half of everything married or not,take from one who knows from experience, google, "womens rights" lots of info on there. good luck
God, It's a good job you had both names put on the mortgage... We lived with my mum's partner for 7 and a half years, but we moved in to his house and the name on the mortgage was never changed. Also, although both of their wages went into the same account to pay the mortgage/bills/and for our villa, when she left him we were left with nothing.
46 with her first mortgage, no furniture, no money or savings. GREAT position.
hi first things first seek legal advice i was not married and have 2 children and been with my partner for 19 years and when i was going to split up i was told who evers the names are on the morgage eg both, then both are entitled to a 50/50 no matter whot and belongings in the house were to be proved by reciepts.I never had a civil parnership agreement between us both. A friend of mine only had his name on morgage and he wasnt married and he had 2 children and he through her out after eleven years and she could not do anything about it