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king's widow

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dothawkes | 02:10 Thu 01st Sep 2005 | History
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Why was Henry tempted to sell his mother in 1504 when his father's feath made her a King's widow.

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um, Henry who?
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King Henry of course
don't know of any King Henrys who died, or whose father died, in 1504. (or any Goldmiths around in 1937, just to save me answering your other question). You trying to impress deesel with your command of history?
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Shh, it's the brainiacs we are surrounding
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His Mother was married to The Earl of Derby who died on 1504

If you post too often (I think it's 3 times in 5 minutes) the robots automatically ban you in case you're a spammer, so BEWARE!

 

Did you know Henry VII's mum was only 13 when she had him? True. And on that bombshell I shall go to bed.

This is a little screwy but I think I see what's being driven at.

Henry VII had a rather dubious claim to the throne. His mother Margaret Beaufort was descended from Edward III nearly 100 years earlier.

Margaret had 4 husbands the last was Thomas Stanley who died in 1504. Stanley was not Henry's father but technically his step father.

Henry VII was pretty strapped for cash. Most of his reign was to do with consolidating the country after the wars of the Roses and trying to put the country back into the black. He got a reputation as a miser. I would not be surprised if he did consider the possibility of selling his mother's hand in marriage.

Margaret was old, she died a couple of years later and if she maried a youngre man he mould have probably inherited the duchy of Richmond, land and money.

However it may be that he did not and it was propaganda but about by his enemies to make him out as a miser.

she wasn't a king's widow, though.

No and in fact Owen Tudor her second husband and Henry vii's father was a Welsh squire!

Henry did not have a legitimate claim to the throne but he killed Richard III and ended the wars of the roses and I guess that's what counts 

ok dot, no stars for this question. next?

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