ChatterBank0 min ago
Australia
Answers
No best answer has yet been selected by David Fay. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.The subsequent British colonisation resulted largely because the transportation of convicts to the colonies in North America was stopped after the American Revolution. The plan to send our convicts to Botany Bay in New South Wales instead was initially put into practice in 1788. All future British - rather than just English - immigration to Australia stemmed from that.
Since they'd effectively ignored it for almost a couple of centuries, the Dutch didn't seem to be really interested in getting their "wicked claws into it" in any case!
If the words had anything whatever to do with prisoners or acronyms - for which there is not a shred of evidence - one has to ask why they did not appear until 130 years after Australia became a penal colony and 75 years after New South Wales ceased to be a dumping-ground for British convicts. The modern equivalent in America, for example, would be if people today suddenly started to use phrases common during the Civil War. How likely is that?
Unfortunately one cannot consult the OED online except at considerable cost, but here's a reliable site dealing with the matter that you can have a look at. Click http://www.worldwidewords.org/qa/qa-pom1.htm
I could find an equally long list of books, could I be bothered, to vouch for 'posh' as an acronym for 'port out, starboard home', as I said earlier. (There are even those misguided acronym-fanatics who believe the naughty short word that opens with the letter 'f' is one, too!)
Surely, if convicts' uniforms had to be stamped, there would have been a written regulation to that effect in 'Governors' Instructions'. British colonial administration was invariably meticulous in such matters, yet nobody ever wrote your claimed phrase down anywhere.
But I'll leave it at that...pomegranate/immigran(i)t remains by far the most likely source.
Incidentally, the OED does not fight shy of listing remotely-credible - but wrong - etymologies, which it then goes on to dismiss. Port of Melbourne, Prisoner of Mother England, Prisoner of His/Her Majesty and Permit of Migration have each been touted as the acronymic source of 'pom'. (What...all of 'em? Yep...all of 'em!) Yet, the OED does not even give any of them house-room. A perfect illustration, I'd say, of "a silence that speaks louder than words." What it does say is: "the most widely-held derivation is that which connects pom with pomegranate." Acronym-explanations are a nothing more than a minority view rather than the actual answer.
above you mention keeping an open mind, but you rarely seem to do this yourself. fair enough your explanation may be the the most widely used, but that doesn't necessarily mean it is right.
for once it would be nice to see you let something lie and let other people have their opinions, rather than engaging in a slightly childish argument... even if you don't agree with it.
just a thought...
No doubt, as you have noticed, I have often carried this drive for "rightness" into my responses here, too. I do not apologise for that and, actually, I don't care whether people accept my views here on AnswerBank or not. The situation in this thread was that Indie made a claim for which there isn't a shred of real contemporaneous evidence and seemed reluctant to hear what recognised expert-sources - the OED and Michael Quinion, the personal face of the OED, if you like, at the Worldwidewords website for which I provided a link - had to say on the matter. I couldn't see that as being very different from the 'tennis'girl' illustration I offered above.
I can't see my approach changing any time soon, though of course I regret that it seems to offend you. By the way, I mentioned 'keeping an open mind' ironically, since Indie had used it first. A mind that is 'open' to just about anything is no great advantage!
In exact words, the 2003 version says:
ORIGIN C20: of unkown origin; said by some to be short for pomegranate, as a near rhyme to immigrant.
A meaning "said by some" is a far cry from a source "tending to favour" it.
As secretquiz says, we should be open to other suggestions and be prepared to accept the fact there are other opinions. I, for example, am now aware of a number of possibilities, all with a varying degrees of chances of being correct.
Clearly, I've no idea which variation you are quoting from...The Concise?...The Shorter?...The Whatever? The one I'm quoting from is the multi-volume one you can find in your local Reference Library - looking for all the world like a set of the 'Encyclop�dia Britannica' - and actually accorded the title 'The'. It alone is the master edition and from it have come the points I have made above. As it happens, I'm fortunate enough to have it on my bookshelves and - as it also happens - whenever someone on AnswerBank offers an etymology that disagrees with it, I try to correct them, since it is universally regarded as the 'bible' of English etymology. (Seems like I've wasted my time on this occasion, though!)
Michael Quinion is a leading etymologist/lexicographer and a major contributor to 'the' OED. He it is who runs the Worldwidewords website I tried to lead you to earlier. Did you read what he said about acronyms as explanations for 'pom'? One can quote book-titles that "say different" until one is blue in the face...it won't alter the fact that truly-expert opinion begs to differ. A major reason for that is probably the fact that the acronymaniacs never bother to explain why 'pom' should have come to mean 'Brit'. In convict days, everyone in Australia effectively was a Brit! What need, therefore, was there to differentiate. On the other hand, the rhyming 'pomegranate/immigran(i)t' explains perfectly...ie that 'pom' arose long after penal-colony days - your own dictionary says 20th Century - and referred to newcomers rather than native-born Aussies. In other words, 'pom' would seem to have had nothing to do with convicts at all! Evidence...let's have some evidence that it did. I've offered plenty that it didn't.
It's good to hear, though, that you seem to recognise the absolute authority/value of the opinion of 'The Oxford English Dictionary'. It's rather a silly modern trend to believe that any opinion is as valid as any other. Personally, when I'm ill, I listen to my doctor's opinion in preference to some plasterer down the pub's opinion as to what is wrong with me. I'd still dearly love to hear why people believe 'pom' in any kind of prisoner sense came to mean 'Brit'.
Scene: Sydney Harbour. Morning, May 3rd 1899. A British immigrant - not convict - ship has recently docked and passengers are disembarking.
Brit: "Did you just call me a pom? Why?"
Aussie: "Because it stands for 'Prisoner of Mother England'."
Brit: "What's that got to do with me? I've never had anything to do with prisons or prisoners."
Aussie: "Oh yeah! That's me, isn't it? I'm the one descended from a convict! Sorry!"
In other words, if Brit immigrants had started calling native-born white Aussies 'poms', I'd have understood perfectly. So, why did the opposite happen? (I wonder if you can offer me a theory, Del, 'cos I don't think anyone else is going to. All I'm after here now is a reasonably rational explanation of why the acronym-etymology supporters give it (them, rather) any credence whatever.)
I fully agree that arguing over this isn't productive, but I would like Quizmonster to accept that other theories exist, as I have. I personally have no idea which is the correct one, they all exist for a reason and each has a chance of being right.