Sheffield Childrens Hospital C/D 5/1
Quizzes & Puzzles5 mins ago
No best answer has yet been selected by grandmabundy. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.I thought Great Britain came into existance when the Act of Union with Scotland was passed in 1606? Sorry to be so pedantic but if the current Queen is queen of Great Britain does it not mean that she is queen of England "and" Scotland? If I'm right, that's two queens - no puns of any sort intended.
The current Queen Elizabeth is the Second of England but the First of Scotland. Causes no end of irritation North of the border.
That`s one of the reasons the QE2 was given the number 2 instead of "Queen Elizabeth the Second".......Scottish Nationalism was at its highest point in those days. Can`t speak for the QM2.
Of course there have been two. The fact that Queen Elizabeth II is Queen of the UK does not stop her from being Queen of England. Obviously Scotland has only had one.
The Act of Union (by which the separate kingdoms of England and Scotland were joined to make Great Britain) was 1707, not 1606 and not 1603. From 1603 to 1707, the same Kings and Queens were monarchs of both countries, but they were both independent with their own parliaments.
The Union of the Crowns is the phrase used to describe the constitutional change of 1603 when James VI of Scotland inherited the throne of England, becoming James I of that country. He is generally referred to as 'James I/VI' or James VI/I'.
On 20th October, 1604, he was publicly proclaimed "King of Great Britain". Until his accession to the English throne, Scotland and England were totally separate countries. The name 'Britain' had been in use in various ways earlier, but this was the very first occasion on which the adjective �Great' was added to it and there was a publicly-acknowledged entity called 'Great Britain'.The name was 'officially' adopted at the Act of Union of 1707, but existed over a century earlier.
Here's a thought...
If Prince William marries and his first child is christened James, what would the latter's title be on his eventual accession to the throne? It's perfectly obvious that he would be referred to as 'King James the Third', there having been two earlier kings of Great Britain named 'James'.
But hold on! Scotland had already had six King Jameses before the Union of the Crowns in 1603 and there was another later James...James II...so surely this new child would have to be James VIII. I mean...if you're allowed to count previous monarchs of England when allocating numbers to British monarchs - as Bernardo insists - surely it's only fair that we count previous monarchs of Scotland, too.
My first try didnt quite get through, but no matter everyone seems to be having fun.
We were certainly taught that in history essays, the country we should refer to 1604-1801 was Great Britain. It is interesting to read that james was declared King of Great Britain, because an early act of parliament declared that he was to be referred to as james VI and I. Clearly he was not the VIth of great britain.
Our present dear Queen I think is Queen of the United Kingdom and Queen of England. The titles need not be exclusive - she is also Queen of Canada and Australia
Oh in terms of Qm question on James VIII or III? There is a precedent - James II 1685-88 not a raving success I am afraid has already sorted that one out.
Willam IV 1830-37 wasnt WIlliam II and IV - although he could have been.
I mean what if Princess Anne gets to the throne and takes the name Joylene?