I currently live in the middle of a terrace. There is a carpark which serves our house, but it is not big enough for all of the houses to use (16 spaces for 20 houses).
Any land on the estate which is not related to any one property is owned by the original managing agents of the council estate. The estate is almost all privately owned now, but there are still one or two renters. The managing agents are refusing to provide a solution to the parking issue, and state only that we are not allowed to park on the public roads around the estate.
We were using the strip of land behind our house (which provides access only to these houses, and is turfed - there is nothing beyond this but fields). However the managing agents have taken umbridge to this and have erected a bollard to stop us, as they are saying we are creating a nuisance on a public footpath. I wasn't aware that this was considered a 'public' footpath, when it provides access to the rear of only 5 properties.
My question is: what is the definition of a public footpath, and can I fight the managing agents either to give us more carparking space, or to allow us to use this piece of land?
Its a public footpath if it defined as such as a definitive right of way. The local council will have a record what where the footpaths are. Most footpaths are public rights of way over land that it privately owned. Even if it is a public footpath, I'm afraid you still can't park a car on it - it grants permission to pass on foot.