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shift allowance

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Arabs060308 | 21:14 Mon 26th Sep 2011 | How it Works
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The company I work for pay shift allowances to 2 departments but none to the other 2. This was written into the contracts years ago. I feel this is discrimination as we all work for the same company and all have to work together as a team. The place I work is a factory, so there is no-one doing any extra skilled job than any other person. The allowance is paid determined on the hours worked. Surely there must be a law that doesn't allow this to happen as it is basic discrimination against workers who work in a certain department. Any information on this would be much appreciated.
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Is there anything in the Equal Pay Act that might help you? Worth reading this I think

http://www.direct.gov...l1/Newsroom/DG_191258
Discrimination in the workplace is COMPLETELY LAWFUL as long as it isn't based upon race, gender, age, disability, religion or sexual orientation. Every employee's contract is entirely independent of that of any other employee (unless 'collective bargaining' has been agreed to or, as with teachers, there are national pay scales).

In the City of London's financial sector (where it's normal for each employee to have a separate contract to those working alongside him) two employees might sit next to each other, doing identical jobs, with one earning £20,000 per year (and no bonuses) while his colleague earns £200,000 per year (with massive bonuses). It's perfectly lawful (and long may it stay that way!).

Chris
I think you hit the nail on the head when you said "the allowance is paid determined on the hours worked".
If you'd now tell us what the differential is that drives whether the allowance is paid, all will become very obvious.
These sort of allowances are typically paid for unsocial hours, unsocial aspects to the work.
I once came across an organisation that paid an extra allowance to workers for fishing dead seals out of the sea-water inlet grating.
I pretty much support what buildersmate says although:
(a)I wonder from the question whether both departments sometimes work the same hours but one gets shift payment and one doesn't., and
(b) if the job roles are the same in both departments, and performance levels are the same, then whilst the employer would be entitled to pay different rates I don't think it is good employment practice to do so as it can be divisive.

Arabs060308- would you be happier if the employer left your pay unchanged but got rid of the other department's shift allowance?
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