Calculating Thames Water Bill

[filthiestfis]

As the price of water went up on 1st april in my area and I moved into the property at the beginning of february, Thames sent me my first bill covering feb-march 31st 2010 and then the entire year from 1st april 2010 to 31st march 2011. However, the bill shows that the ENTIRE period has been charged at the higher rate applicable from 1st april 2010.
When I rang Thames water they said they couldnt break it down on the bill for me to see but that the bill had been calculated rightly and that I had been charged the '2009' rate for the period before the rise on 1st april. But how do I know that they have done this? I asked them to send me a breakdown of the bill so I could see how it was calculated and they said this is not possible.
Am I wonderfully fluffed? Is it normal for Thames to calculate all periods under one rate?

[Buenchico]

It's probably not worth fussing over. The sewerage charge (which forms part of your water bill) has actually gone DOWN this year, so it's to your benefit if that part of your 'old' bill has been charged at the current rate.

The average (unmetered) Thames Water bill has only gone up by £8 per year, so that means that if an 'average' property was accidentally charged at the 'new' rate, rather than at the 'old' one, they'd only be getting overcharged by around £1.30 for the 2-month period. However, as you live in a flat, the rateable value of your property will be less than average, so the excess you've been charged (if it exists at all) is under £1. It will cost you more than that in phone calls (and/or postage) to challenge your bill. It simply isn't worth it.

Chris

[factor-fiction]

I agree with Buenchico.
I doubt Thames would be overcharging you- i think it's more likely that their systems can't cope or they think they are being helpful by simplifying their bill. Seems odd though- it must be common for people to move part way through the year