Can someone please help me to understand this! In my last job, i was paid 18 days in arrears and 10 days in advance. We were paid four weekly (the second wednesday of each 4 week period). I handed in and worked my notice and left on the 13th March, having been paid on the 5th March (was paid about �100 less than normal??), and didn't get any other pay after this? Is this right? (Please disregard any holiday pay owing etc, as this is a different matter!!) I just need to know if i have been paid for what i worked or not!! Thanks!
If you were paid on 5th March, then the end of that period of 28 days must have completed on 15th March - 10 days later. That was a Saturday. You left on 13th March, which was a Thursday. You therefore should have forfeited pay for one day on that period - Friday 14th March. This is one twentieth or 5% of your normal period's pay.
You didn't say how much you earn, but unless it is around �2000 per period, too much has been deducted.
That's the way to work it out, anyway.
Thanks buildersmate, i think i sort of understand it a bit now! My salary was �20k per year. I usually took home �1200 but my last pay was �1155 (so not actually �100 less, i must have worked that out wrong before!). So i have pretty much been paid correctly then??
If you are paid a salary of exactly �20k per year, that equates to �1534 per 28-day pay period (calculated as �20000 divided by 365, multiplied by 28).
There are 20 working days in every pay period and you did not work one of them - Friday 14th March - hence my assertion that you would get only 95% of your normal pay that period.
95% of �1534 equals �1457 and a few pence. That should have been your GROSS pay in that final period. Gross pay figure will appear on your payslip.