Crosswords2 mins ago
Having 2 Jobs And Being Ill
6 Answers
If I rang in sick for job A but started feeling better later in the day and feel well enough to go to job B later in the day.
How would I stand with job A if I was seen, even though I were to feel better to work at job B?
How would I stand with job A if I was seen, even though I were to feel better to work at job B?
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For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.Hi Maydup- I am pretty sure a verbal warning (if you mean oral warning) is given orally but a note of it still needs to be made.
But I think an employer may be wrong to push this without more information and if there was no previous issues about the employee's attendance record. If one job was mornings (say 8:00-12:00 and you were unwell and the other was 4-8 but by then you felt a bit better and 'struggled in', I don't see that this shows you weren't genuinely ill in the morning.
If there were no other concerns about your attendance the employer could have an informal chat with you about it. But remember than disciplinary action for attendance can be based on capability so if you are off too often the employer can take disciplinary action, regardless of whether your absence was known to be genuine.
But I think an employer may be wrong to push this without more information and if there was no previous issues about the employee's attendance record. If one job was mornings (say 8:00-12:00 and you were unwell and the other was 4-8 but by then you felt a bit better and 'struggled in', I don't see that this shows you weren't genuinely ill in the morning.
If there were no other concerns about your attendance the employer could have an informal chat with you about it. But remember than disciplinary action for attendance can be based on capability so if you are off too often the employer can take disciplinary action, regardless of whether your absence was known to be genuine.
Thanks Maydup. I misinterpreted your point.
buildersmate is very good on this topic so maybe the difference in our answers shows I was perhaps a little soft as a manager, but I think I would just let the employee knew I knew and leave it at that, unless the employee's record was already a cause for concern and then I'd probably take formal action but on grounds of capability since it'd be very difficult to prove they weren't genuinely ill in the morning.
Anyway, is this scenario any different to someone who works full time for one employer ringing in sick in the morning and then turning up in the afternoon saying they feel well enough to work now after resting? I doubt an employer would give a warning then.
buildersmate is very good on this topic so maybe the difference in our answers shows I was perhaps a little soft as a manager, but I think I would just let the employee knew I knew and leave it at that, unless the employee's record was already a cause for concern and then I'd probably take formal action but on grounds of capability since it'd be very difficult to prove they weren't genuinely ill in the morning.
Anyway, is this scenario any different to someone who works full time for one employer ringing in sick in the morning and then turning up in the afternoon saying they feel well enough to work now after resting? I doubt an employer would give a warning then.