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statutory demand

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silverline | 08:53 Mon 14th May 2007 | Civil
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I have been issued with a statutory demand in relation to unpaid for goods. The suppliers invoice states that all goods remain their property until paid for, the goods were returned to the supplier who refused to accept them( the goods were in the original condition and packaging). I advised the supplier that I would accept no responsibility for the goods and that responsibility rested with themselves as under their terms and conditions the goods were their property. they have now issued a statutory demand for payment, which I will apply to have set aside.

Am I correct in doing this and do I have any recourse against them for slander+
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I should forget the slander idea (which is anyway for words said against you).
Maybe have a look at the terms and conditions of contract to see if there is any reasons why/why not you cannot return the goods. Have you written and explained why you don't want them?
Hi

You can apply to set aside the stat demand, however, you must have a reason which is stated on the form 6.5 of the Insolvency Act.

You also only have 21 days to submit the forms, 6.4 and the affadavit ( 6.5) to the court.

As buildersmate stated. You need to look a the terms within the original agreement and see what the 'small print' says

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