Does anyone out there anything about the legal ins and outs, please. If divorce proceedings are served by the wife's solicitors, do they have to be served to the husband's solicitors, or should they be served to the husband himself. The husband himself is not capable of understanding what's going on which is why the wife's solicitor needs to serve them to the husband's solicitors. The wife's solicitor is saying that she has tried to serve the papers on the husband's solicitors, but that the husband's solicitor is constantly not available. Is there anything that the wife's solicitor can do - methinks that the husband's side are just trying to delay things .... any advice?
Hi, I know my mate had his served to him directly despite the fact that he had a solicitor. As long as the solicitor can prove that he's been served then he can't deny it. All he has to do is to take the papers to his solicitors, case solved.
in all hoesty chokkie, if the person is paying for advice from a solicitor, i would be guided by them.
It seems a bit pointless sefving them on the husband if he is incapable of underrstanding wht to do with them
Hi Chokkie this is not you again is it ?
its a fren' again -
You send the fren back to his lawyer again and tell them to sort it out amongst themselves. I had papers served on me once when I had lawyers and they said they would sort it all out.
Also serving papers between lawyers shouldnt cause unsurmountable obstacles - i honestly thought they popped them in the post