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Stringer and others v Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs
I see the ECJ have now made a decision on this does anyone know if this now means you can claim holiday pay when you are long term sick
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For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.From Personneltoday.com "The ECJ's judgment does not fit with key provisions of the UK's existing Working Time Regulations (WTR). Under the WTR, the premise is simple: use it or lose. This means that workers who do not use their full statutory holiday entitlement in the current holiday year, are not permitted to carry it forward. The House of Lords will have to deal with this issue when the case returns there for its final conclusion. It is likely to find that the ECJ's judgment prevails over the WTR."
Correct in that respect.
As I understand it, such ECJ findings are binding on the UK but specific law is made by the UK. What now has to happen is the Government has to consider the verdict and work out how to change UK legislation to amend UK law so it fits the judgement. It will take several months.
That's what happened with the Human Rights drivel.
As I understand it, such ECJ findings are binding on the UK but specific law is made by the UK. What now has to happen is the Government has to consider the verdict and work out how to change UK legislation to amend UK law so it fits the judgement. It will take several months.
That's what happened with the Human Rights drivel.
Thanks
This has been going on for 4 years so guess a few more months wont matter.
I'll just keep my fingers crossed
Hubby is severely disabled and will never work again but his boss insists on keeping him on his books and for the first 2 years we claimed holiday pay which really annoyed him so maybe if he thought he would have to pay 4 years back holiday pay and continue to pay it he might retire him on ill health and give us the 12 weeks pay we would be entitled to - not a lot to ask after 32 years
This has been going on for 4 years so guess a few more months wont matter.
I'll just keep my fingers crossed
Hubby is severely disabled and will never work again but his boss insists on keeping him on his books and for the first 2 years we claimed holiday pay which really annoyed him so maybe if he thought he would have to pay 4 years back holiday pay and continue to pay it he might retire him on ill health and give us the 12 weeks pay we would be entitled to - not a lot to ask after 32 years
On another tack, have you been down all other options? I guess what you are saying is you don't actually want the holiday pay - you want to force the issue to dismiss on grounds of capability (long term sickness is such a valid reason)?
Have you been down the route of threatening to resign and asserting that you will take the employer to Employment Tribunal as a constructive dismissal (because he will not release you from the contract - when there is no realistic proposal of ever continuing with the employment). I don't know if this could work - you would need to try and get 30mins free with a solicitor via CAB or wherever. Just exploring ideas.
Have you been down the route of threatening to resign and asserting that you will take the employer to Employment Tribunal as a constructive dismissal (because he will not release you from the contract - when there is no realistic proposal of ever continuing with the employment). I don't know if this could work - you would need to try and get 30mins free with a solicitor via CAB or wherever. Just exploring ideas.
You've got it. They no longer do repairs, no longer have a service department but claimed that is job is still there when we asked if he would be made redundant too
They know he wont go back as our doctor sent a letter to say he should be finished on ill health as he will never be able to work again
Believe it or not what he is doing is quite legal and he can just keep him on the book indefinitely
They know he wont go back as our doctor sent a letter to say he should be finished on ill health as he will never be able to work again
Believe it or not what he is doing is quite legal and he can just keep him on the book indefinitely
I see what you are sayng, and i didnt quite understand the bit about 3 months pay (i never knew you had to get that if you were retired on ill health grounds (!) .... but it's been 4 years and clearly he isnt a decent boss. Won't your husband be able to getother benefits if he isnt still "employed" that will be more lucrative than hanging on for another x amount of years for 12 weeks worth of pay?
OK - just got back on the case.
Are you SURE about the facts on the potential for redundancy 2 years ago? - as in you checked it with ACAS, CAB or wherever.
Did he get a letter from employer when all this happened? - if so, what did it say? - perhaps something like 'Dear XX, following closure of the site, I am not making your redundant but I am redeploying you to another part of the company. Clearly this isn't going to happen until you are fit enough to start work again at which time I will discuss with you the options for your work'.
If he didn't do something like this, I'm not sure, but I suspect your husband should have been able to claim that actually he WAS redundant - and hence entitled to payment in lieu of notice, or notice of termination of contract.
I'm not sure and want more time to check it - and the passage of time since may have altered things.
One last thing - did everyone else at the time of the redundancies get paid money in lieu of notice OR were they forced to work their notice? - it may make a difference.
A very interesting case - I've never heard the likes of it before.
Are you SURE about the facts on the potential for redundancy 2 years ago? - as in you checked it with ACAS, CAB or wherever.
Did he get a letter from employer when all this happened? - if so, what did it say? - perhaps something like 'Dear XX, following closure of the site, I am not making your redundant but I am redeploying you to another part of the company. Clearly this isn't going to happen until you are fit enough to start work again at which time I will discuss with you the options for your work'.
If he didn't do something like this, I'm not sure, but I suspect your husband should have been able to claim that actually he WAS redundant - and hence entitled to payment in lieu of notice, or notice of termination of contract.
I'm not sure and want more time to check it - and the passage of time since may have altered things.
One last thing - did everyone else at the time of the redundancies get paid money in lieu of notice OR were they forced to work their notice? - it may make a difference.
A very interesting case - I've never heard the likes of it before.
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