Diivorce - does 6 year statute barred rule apply?

[johnny37]

When six years have elapsed since any contact was made, does the 6 year rule apply to marriage when partner 1 is claiming money for debt in her sole name, ie credit cards, loans etc? There is no property or assets. Partner 2 has since bought a house with another person which is in negative equity.

[STIDW]

If the debt is in the sole name and/or was accrued after separation it is unlikely to be considered matrimonial.

However, in England & Wales if there is no court order finalizing the finances either partner may make claims against each other at any time in the future. The consideration is all the assets/liabilities solely and jointly held at the time of the claim.

You would be well advised to get a court order dismissing future financial claims. In one recent case a woman was awarded �100k+ of an inheritance a husband had just received after 22 years!