Donate SIGN UP

Striking Teachers

Avatar Image
joeluke | 20:04 Thu 10th Jul 2014 | News
86 Answers
Parents are fined if they take their kids out of school for holidays in term-time, yet teachers can strike when they feel like it without fear of repercussions.

Parents are inconvenienced enough times having to arrange extra childcare for the countless 'teacher training/inset' days during the school year

Parents get fined for taking kids out of school, yet no penalties for teachers when they strike and don't turn up at school at the first sign of snow
Gravatar

Answers

61 to 80 of 86rss feed

First Previous 1 2 3 4 5 Next Last

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by joeluke. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.
Yes ..but five year olds become six ,then seven and before you know it they are sixteen .Education goes on .
You would certainly need a degree to teach some subjects .
Which is basically what some teachers are trying to say . Why should they have to study at university to gain a degree enabling them to teach when Gove says it's Ok to have unqualified people .
Everyone has a right to withdraw labour. It is the only way the masses have achieved a fairer deal and ensure those in a position to use them to create wealth do not go too far and abuse their workers.

Complaining because of inconvenience is inappropriate, especially since there are two sides to any dispute and it is unreasonable to push all the blame for a strike on those who felt they were left little option. It smacks of, "I'm important, should not have inconveniences in life, the rest of you are not and should put up with whatever state you find yourself".

If one wished not to lump a number of complaints together as if it made a case and discussed each separately, then there may be something worth investigating.
Agree wholehaertedly with Old_Geezer.
I agree with OG as well.

And saying parents can't take their kids out of school is nonsense. You can take them out for 5 days before being fined. I've never had a request to take my kids out refused.
The right to withdraw on'e services (strike) should remain.

However a ballot held 2 years ago with 73% of membership either not wanting to strike or have no particular opinion.......should not be valid............should it?
Sqad - that's the trouble when a significant percentage don't vote.
But one could then argue that in the last general election that 64% of the electorate either abstained or voted against David Cameron....
slaney....yes! yes! I agree, but we are talking about THIS strike.
slaney ;-)...about the General Election....the winning Government isn't placed in to power 2 years after the election results.
Roy...there was a thread about it. From what I read the fine kicks in if they miss over 5 days.

Why were your kids refused?

> However a ballot held 2 years ago with 73% of membership either not wanting to strike or have no particular opinion.......should not be valid............should it? <

sqad do you not think that they have tried everything to avoid the strike that is why it has taken two years
The reason (holiday) was not a valid reason.
None of them have missed a days schooling unless ill.

They call the schools Academies now but they are more like stalag camps.
Roy, did you go anyway (and paid the fine)?
I think it's pot luck depending on the head teacher.

I realise that Sqad.
I'm pointing out the dangers of including non-voters in any percentage.
A party has a manifesto and the electorate has the option to vote upon that manifesto. If elected, that party then has the mandate to introduce the legislation proposed in that manifesto at any point following that election whether that is immediately or three years later. The same principal applies to industrial action.
\\\\ If elected, that party then has the mandate to introduce the legislation proposed in that manifesto at any point following that election whether that is immediately or three years later.\\\

LOL......thanks Corby.
The only votes that I am aware of where a set percentage of the electorate had to vote in favour were the 1979 Devolution Referenda in Scotland and Wales where 40% had to vote in favour for it to succeed.
I thought that industrial action had to start within 28 days of a legal ballot, that it can go to 8 weeks with the permission of the employer and that you don`t necessarily have legal protection (against being sacked) if it continues beyond 12 weeks. How did they get away with 2 years? Not to mention people who have voted and then ended their employment in which case their votes would be illegal?
...maybe it is due to some sort of grey area in the "resumption of industrial action" law.

61 to 80 of 86rss feed

First Previous 1 2 3 4 5 Next Last

Do you know the answer?

Striking Teachers

Answer Question >>