NJ: "As I have explained before, in more than 80% of instances where the UK has opposed proposals made by the EU, those proposals have been passed nonetheless."
Care to provide a citation for that one? I ask because I've seen different statistics that would imply almost the exact opposite is the case, ie that the UK's and EU's policy interests or policy decisions align in an overwhelming majority of cases, see eg this one:
http://ukandeu.ac.uk/wp-content/uploads/2015/10/Graph-Hix-e1444751068916.png (although I have to say I'm not quite sure how those graphs are arrived at), or here:
http://ukandeu.ac.uk/explainers/does-the-uk-win-or-lose-in-the-council-of-ministers/ (same source), both of which appear to imply good (although not perfect) agreements between the UK and the EU, and certainly not 80%. I wonder if that is 80% of the times we disagree initially (ie ignoring the times we do agree)?
But anyway, I'm not sure I'm missing the point in fact, or rather it's now where a philosophical disagreement changes the interpretation. If you prefer decisions to be made as locally as possible, then for sure
any EU-biased policy is undesirable. If, on the other hand, as I do, you'd rather see greater globalisation and integration on more and more policy issues, then the case for leaving the EU is already on somewhat shaky ground before you've even started. I'm not sure that difference is ever going to be reconciled.