difference betwen 'was' and ' have/has been'

[spincity]

What is the difference between 'I was told' and 'I have been told'?

[MargeB]

Not much, if anything. The 'was' is being stolen from the Past Imperfect in english and being used as Past Perfect or Past Historic.

Normally the examples would be Imperfect and then Perfect:

I was being told about the weather (IMP) when I was hit by a tree (Perfect).

Try learning french, italian, or spanish, you'll know all about it!

[JudgeJ]

Agree with Marge B on the technicalities.

However, this is a one of those delightful vagaries of the English Language that cannot be entirely explained technically, but instead relies to a degree upon colloquialism. 

“I was told” seems to imply that the recipient was provided with a definite and irrefutable piece of information. “I have been told” seems to convey that an element of doubt exists over the said information.

Consider “I was told she is in her early forties” and  “I have been told she is in her early forties” (with a slight emphasis on the “have”).

See what I mean?

[MargeB]

Dead right. I have been told that JudgeJ has been right in the past and was being right in the post above.

With all due respect to other languages, I'm real glad I'm on this side of the english language looking out, rather than learning it as a foreigner. Imagine what learning it's like if you're french or italian or american.

[Grunty]

JudgeJ - I bet she insists that she is in her thirties.

[Kimmiebear]

I love that you consider American a foreign language!