OK, to begin with, I'm not with you: who is this Kelloggs you are referring to? If this is someone who you've had a difference of opinion with on AB, then rest assured I'm not him or her. I suggest you complain to the Editor if you have a beef with some individual on here. Now to your questions.
You said in your original post "nearly 50% of the population are allergic to milk". In your second post, you now assert that it is "many" instead without specifying a figure. Now rov1200, "50%" is NOT "many" and vice versa. So let's go back to the original post: would you now like to give us a more realistic figure? I'll give you a clue: it's not 50% nor many.
The problem I have with your post is that it's glaringly obvious that you are confusing lactose intolerance with milk allergy. Not to put to fine a point on it, you might as well be comparing chalk and cheese. Have a good read of the following link:
http://www.scienceinafrica.co.za/2002/may/milk .htm
for clarification, Note the relevant percentages.
I didn't say that the milk allergy " has nothing to do" with lactose. I said that your second explanatory sentence in your first post was incorrect. It is. The reason it is incorrect is that milk allergy is not solely attributable to the lack of the gene, which is what you claimed. Read the cited article and you'll see that this is so.
You really do need to appreciate the difference between milk allergy and milk intolerance. Admirable that your Wikipedia link is, it confines itself to milk intolerance. Try Googling milk allergy for the bigger picture.