Wimbledon Prize Money

[rocketpost1]

I've been looking around on Google but can't find any info. Can anyone tell me why the winners of the mixed doubles final only got £100,000 whereas the the winners of the same sex doubles finals got four times that amount ie £400,000 ?. This is of course 2017 prize money.

[jim360]

Mixed Doubles is, perhaps, not regarded so highly, since there are only four mixed doubles events a year (five in an Olympic Year, six if you also count the Hopman Cup), so it's almost more of an exhibition. At any rate it's probably basically for that reason -- I'd regard it as a proper event and I'm sure the competitors do too (as do the audience!) but it's probably fair to call it one of the lowest rungs of the serious tennis ladder.

[ladybirder]

Here you go.
http://www.totalsportek.com/tennis/wimbledon-prize-money/

[Neveracrossword]

I think it's the Why, the reason for the variation in prize money, that rocketpost is looking for.

[rocketpost1]

Thanks jim360, your answer sounds about right but as this is Wimbledon and the level of skill is the same in all doubles matches, I think the prize money should be equalised. Of course, the disabled athletes get next to nothing but that's another story.

[ABerrant]

Perhaps more iniquitous is wheelchair finalists winning less than the 1st round "able bodied" losers who feigned match fitness before failing to complete their matches.

[ABerrant]

^ Snap!