literacy rates in the 15th century pre-Caxton Printing

[bodybeatrock]

where would I find a reference on the literacy rates in England in the 1400s?

[Mr Songman]

I think you'll find that it would have been virtually impossible to assess the literacy of England in the 13th century as hardly anyone was speaking the same language.

After all, until 1362, French was still the language of parliament in England. You must remember that although William the Conqueror tried to learn English, he never mastered it!

Lincoln Barnett noted that when the Dean Of Windsor wrote to Henry IV in 1403 , the language drifted between English & French!!

By the late 14th century Oxford University had introduced a statute to the effect that students be taught at least partly in French " lest the French language be entirely dis-used"

And because of the vast array of English dialects, even by the 15th century, people in one part of England could not understand people from another part.

In fact Caxton gives an example of this in "Eneydos" in 1490, in which a group of sailors had travelled but 50 miles from London and found they could not make themselves understood in Kent!!!!

This, and a more detailed version of the above - and much more - can be found in Mother Tongue by Bill Bryson.

Hope this helps!

[maxi29]

What Mr Songman says is interesting but doesn't really answer the question as what language or dialect a person speaks bears no relation to his/her literacy.

I'm afraid I can't answer the question but it's a good one. I'd suggest that the rate will be low though, wasn't Henry 1 called Beauclerc because he could write? This suggests that literacy wasn't even usual among the aristocracy in Norman and Plantagenet times.

[Mr Songman]

I agree Maxi 29 with what you say:

"as what language or dialect a person speaks bears no relation to his/her literacy"

That is right. But how do you assess a literacy RATE when you have no fixed reference?

My point was that with so many people speaking what amounted to different languages, it would be virtually impossible for someone to come up with any worthwhile figure!

Would the literate have judged people on their ability to read and write Latin, French or English? Would they have been classed as illterate if they could read & write Old English or Anglo Saxon?

My answer was not to whether they were literate or not but on bodybeatrock's chances of finding figures!!

But like you, I eagerly await the outcome!

Luck to you both!

[red armada]

further to the rates of literacy,there are to the best of my knowledge no literacy figures for that period.they simply weren't kept at the time.the only people who would have been educated during the 1400s,would have been those in postions of power such as the aristocracy.however,as was pointed out in a previous answer,the rates of literacy even amongst these would have been minimal.the only place where an education would be guaranteed would be in the clergy.many families would send their sons to be monks so that they could be educated.perhaps you could try some of the ecclesiastical establishments in england,such as westminster abbey.i would imagine they would hold many relevent documents on this subject,or at least guide you in the right direction.good luck.