News1 min ago
Question About Uk Real Estate ..
11 Answers
I have seen a house listed for sale with seemingly 2 prices .... one one site the price is £700,000 and on another it shows as £600,000 freehold.
Grateful if anyone might help me understand what this means.
Grateful if anyone might help me understand what this means.
Answers
Best Answer
No best answer has yet been selected by chardon713. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.may simply be the case that the property is being advertised by two agents who value it differently...since agents charge a % of sale price it is in their interest to get as high a price as posssible..usually a single agent is appointed but it is not uncommon for there to be more than one vying for the sale
Basically it probably means it was trying to sell at the higher price on one site, got nowhere, and was then offered on another site at a lower price. If interested, go to the site with the lower price but do not mention you saw it at the higher price. Be aware they may be prepared to drop the price even more, so an offer below that may be accepted. Making offers is the norm actually...the skill is pitching it right.
There is an explanation of freehold here...
http:// www.acc ess-leg al.co.u k/free- legal-g uides/W hat-is- -the-di fferenc e-betwe en-free hold-an d-lease hold-58 97.htm# .Vn5gaO inxSA
From a brief googling,it would seem that many or most UK properties are freehold. It's just not specified but leasehold is as that affects length of ownership etc
http://
From a brief googling,it would seem that many or most UK properties are freehold. It's just not specified but leasehold is as that affects length of ownership etc
google " meaning of Freehold"
lots there to read on Boxing Day
it is is one of the two main ways of owning land - and is sort of better than no 2 which is leasehold
same as US law but if you come from a Napoleonic code system it takes quite a lot to get your head around as there are no real parallels
lots there to read on Boxing Day
it is is one of the two main ways of owning land - and is sort of better than no 2 which is leasehold
same as US law but if you come from a Napoleonic code system it takes quite a lot to get your head around as there are no real parallels
-- answer removed --