Does anyone know how this works? Our friends are divorcing after 35 years marriage. No dependants. (a) Is it basically 50:50 assets, even though one is the 'guilty' party? (b) Spouse will presumably get 50% of his pension going forward. However, his pension is his alone (i.e. not even provision for a widow's pension) on the basis that, presumably, his pension payment is higher and would have ended on his death. Do they sort of unravel the pension and set up something anew or does her half cease on his death post divorce? Thanks.
Thanks both. It looks like this divorce is going to get messy - and costly (to both parties). Hey ho. (PS Why is someone singing a song to me on a loop when I'm on AB today?)
When my mum divorced my step dad a few years ago, they came an the agreement that she got a bigger share of the house, in return for him keeping all of his pension.
I'd assume it's just a a case of sitting down and trying to agree as to who gets what.
yeah this is described in the URL I gave
pension offsetting ...
I didnt understand that as pension should be included and not offset ( subtracted ) - but a trade - I keep more of the pension and you keep more of the house ....is common
much better if they can keep talking to each other
but so many cant ....
When my brother and his wife divorced he had to give her half the value of the house and half of his pension pot.
The irony of this was a couple of years down the line his pension company went bust so she got half of what he got nothing of, if that makes sense!