My partner and i purchased a house in July 2005. She was at school then went on to university whilst working part time on weekends so therefore the majority of money that has been and that is put into the house is by me. I saved more for the deposit and furniture etc, and for the past 12 months i have paid 95% of the bills and outgoings. During this time though, she did most of the household chores and general upkeeping of the house. She started working full time in July 2006 and has contributed to half of the bills and outgoings since then. We split up about 5-6 weeks ago and we are now arranging for me to buy her out of the property, to which i would have to re-mortgage the house and she wants 50% of the profit made on the property. My question is this, considering this situation, how much of the profit gained on the property is she legally entitled to?
There is no legal percentage as such but in the circumstances you describe her claim for 50% of the surplus after the existing mortgage and selling costs have been deducted from the sale proceeds is very likely to succeed.
The quick & easy solution, enabling you to move on, is to agree to what she wants. But if there is a substantial sum at stake you might feel her demand is unreasonable. If you do, you could try negotiating - based on details of what each of you has put into the property, plus a reasonable allowance for her time in doing household chores etc. but also taking account of any time you have spent on chores or maintenance of the house.