Crosswords1 min ago
Faulty TV
I bought my 83 year old mother a new TV in september and the thing stopped working on new years eve(of all times). The tv guy picked it up today and has taken it away for repair. Am i entitled to ask for my money back under the faulty goods act?
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For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.No. Your entitlement to receive a refund for faulty goods only lasts until the point when you've legally 'accepted' them. The duration of this period isn't laid down in law but, for something like a TV, the 'pre-acceptance period' would probably be a day or two. (i.e. long enough for you to get the TV home and check that it's working properly).
After the point at which you've legally 'accepted' the goods, the vendor is obliged to put right anything which goes wrong with the goods, due to a fault which was inherent at the time of purchase for a period of 6 years. For the first 6 months of this period, the law automatically assumes that any problem which occurs is due to an 'inherent fault' (e.g. poor quality components or poor manufacturing standards). For the remainder of the 6 year period, the purchaser has to show that the most likely cause of the problem, based upon the 'balance of probabilities', is an inherent fault.
As I've stated, the retailer is obliged to put things right but the law allows him to decide whether to repair or replace the item. (There is no entitlement to a refund and the purchaser does not have the right to choose between repair or replacement). However, the retailer is also obliged to minimise any inconvenience to the customer. In the case of a faulty TV, this might mean providing a loan set while the repair is being carried out (or while awaiting delivery of a replacement set).
Chris
After the point at which you've legally 'accepted' the goods, the vendor is obliged to put right anything which goes wrong with the goods, due to a fault which was inherent at the time of purchase for a period of 6 years. For the first 6 months of this period, the law automatically assumes that any problem which occurs is due to an 'inherent fault' (e.g. poor quality components or poor manufacturing standards). For the remainder of the 6 year period, the purchaser has to show that the most likely cause of the problem, based upon the 'balance of probabilities', is an inherent fault.
As I've stated, the retailer is obliged to put things right but the law allows him to decide whether to repair or replace the item. (There is no entitlement to a refund and the purchaser does not have the right to choose between repair or replacement). However, the retailer is also obliged to minimise any inconvenience to the customer. In the case of a faulty TV, this might mean providing a loan set while the repair is being carried out (or while awaiting delivery of a replacement set).
Chris
I use Lexis Nexis and it shows no such legislation exists...I'm probably being thick, and in all honesty, it's been years since I did Consumer law as I'm a criminal specialist...but could you link me to your copy or source of the legislation please?
p.s My answer only re-iterated the part of the first post which i neglected to see when I answered :-)
p.s My answer only re-iterated the part of the first post which i neglected to see when I answered :-)