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John Doe???

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Balibee | 16:39 Fri 20th Aug 2004 | Phrases & Sayings
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Why do the Americans use the names John and Jane Doe for unnamed bodies? I can understand the forenames, but why Doe???
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It's just a basic one-sylable name - absolutely nothing memmorable about it at all - hence its use to identify someone with nothing to distinguish them at all, apart from an unfortunate death.
I thin it's more complicated than that isn't it? Something to do with English law?
If you click here, that will link you to a web-page which explains.
Ok I thought so, John Doe was used in English law as a fictional/unnamed character used in disputes over title to real property as early as the 15th Century and has since come to mean an anonymous or average man. I can't find a reason why the name John Doe was used in these cases... reckon QM might?
Posted same time QM!
A little synchrography never hurt anyone, Moog! Cheers
quizmonster - you're back! (did you ever go away?)
Not really, Darth. I was 'absent' for a few days over the weekend a fortnight ago and spent yesterday at the Portsmouth Beerfest...but apart from those occasions, I've looked in pretty well every other day. Good to see you back.

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