Hello everyone, I am the person that my friend was talking about. The point he is trying to make is - my wife HAS cheated on me. But, if I wanted the divorce on the grounds of adultery, would I be in a better position in terms of what I can take as mine from it?
The obvious scenario is that everthing gets split 50-50 if it is in both names, even if one party has paid more towards certain things e.g. the house. But if I said I'm divorcing due to adultery, would I be able to get a greater share than 50% of any assets?