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fraud/deception

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gazbags | 14:19 Sat 07th Apr 2007 | Criminal
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I gave a large amount of money to a friend to pass onto another friend. The first friend said he did but a year later I found out he didn't. Can I sue him for the money without a receipt/
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You could do - but has he got any assets?

If he hasn't, he'll declare himself bankrupt and that' s that.

Geting the judgement is easy - it's enforcing it that can be a very expensive problem.
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Can I be the next man-in-the-middle when you're planning to launder the proceeds of your next bank heist?
you've got to 'sound off like you've got a pair' according to gunnery sgt. hartman
it sounds a bit too much like money laundering mate, nah only joking im sure it isn't. have you any proof that you gave the first person the money or is there no receipt and no other form of proof that you did.
anyway, id forget about it m8, money comes money goes, im sure its all swings and roundabouts anyway, he'll get whats coming to him, im sure.
take care
adam
2 hopes, Bob Hope and no hope.
lol at rev
Simple answer...no! Not without a very talented/brave lawyer!

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