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bunny.hoppy | 21:38 Thu 08th Nov 2007 | Law
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I purchased my house 3 yrs ago and have just found out that the person who sold it me committed mortgage fraud when he purchased it. apparently he never declared that he already had a mortgage which was in arrears on a property in negative equity in a different part of the country and because he had not lived there for several years (he had it rented out) he never disclosed this address on his application. He just used the address of the property he had been renting for the past 5 yrs. He is at logger heads withnhis ex girlfriend who is now planning to 'drop him in it' with the authorities claiming that he obtained property by deception. Although when I purchased the property I presume this mortgage was paid up, if he was charged where would i stand in all this, surley they couldnt take my house off me. And what would happen to him? Many thanks
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How he got te money to buy is of no significance to you. You have no liability for anything he did.
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thanks looneytunes. its just people are saying that because he obtained it illegally then in theory it was'nt his to sell.
Stop worrying - your solicitor, and his, and the bank's had to sign off on all the documents. You won't need to worry about this.

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