Quizzes & Puzzles3 mins ago
When can a country (or group of countries) break the law?
2 Answers
When can a country (or group of countries) break the law?
The Law I had in mind, well, actually an International Treaty, is the Treaty of St. Germain (September 1919)
This prohibited the newly created Austria from EVER (my emphasis) entering into a Military, Political or Economic Alliance with Germany, without the unanimous consent of the (also newly-created) League of Nations
Now, clearly Austria and Germany are now cosy bedfellows in the European Union (and before that, the Common Market and the EEC)
Also, clearly, Hitler broke that treaty with his Anschluss of Austria in March, 1938
However, after WWII, it seems that no other aspects of this League of Nations Treaty were ignored. The various autonomous countries created in the Balkans remained as laid out ion the Treaty, the Italian of Ownership of Trieste was never revoked, the ownership by Poland of parts of northern Bohemia remained unchallenged, so why was this one clause simply allowed to slide into obscurity?
Because Hitler broke it? That's like saying that if Bill murders Charlie, after Bill's capture, trial and punishment, the law against murder can be safely ignored from now on
So, when was this Treaty overturned, by whom, and how?
The Law I had in mind, well, actually an International Treaty, is the Treaty of St. Germain (September 1919)
This prohibited the newly created Austria from EVER (my emphasis) entering into a Military, Political or Economic Alliance with Germany, without the unanimous consent of the (also newly-created) League of Nations
Now, clearly Austria and Germany are now cosy bedfellows in the European Union (and before that, the Common Market and the EEC)
Also, clearly, Hitler broke that treaty with his Anschluss of Austria in March, 1938
However, after WWII, it seems that no other aspects of this League of Nations Treaty were ignored. The various autonomous countries created in the Balkans remained as laid out ion the Treaty, the Italian of Ownership of Trieste was never revoked, the ownership by Poland of parts of northern Bohemia remained unchallenged, so why was this one clause simply allowed to slide into obscurity?
Because Hitler broke it? That's like saying that if Bill murders Charlie, after Bill's capture, trial and punishment, the law against murder can be safely ignored from now on
So, when was this Treaty overturned, by whom, and how?
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Sorry to be so late answering, this is one of AnswerBank' backwaters!
The economic restrictions on Germany regarding WWII as well as earlier treaties were lifted in the 1951 Treaty of Paris which allowed the formation of the European Coal and Steel Community which through an amazing series of mutations became the forerunner to the EU
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/European_Coal_and _Steel_Community
The economic restrictions on Germany regarding WWII as well as earlier treaties were lifted in the 1951 Treaty of Paris which allowed the formation of the European Coal and Steel Community which through an amazing series of mutations became the forerunner to the EU
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/European_Coal_and _Steel_Community
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