Crosswords0 min ago
What do they say in Greece?
3 Answers
I understand that 'its all greek to me' means something is meaningless and 'dutch courage' means being brave after having a few drinks. But what expressions do Greek and Dutch people use for the same things? I'm sure they don't say 'it's all english to me' or 'english courage'.
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On 'all Greek to me' my Brewer's Dictionary of Phrase & Fable says only that it's found in Shakespeare (Julius Caesar), but nothing of the origin of the phrase.
Under 'Dutch courage', the same book offers: 'The courage exerted by drink. The Dutch were considered heavy drinkers'.
I don't think this is a bias of the publishers of Brewer's Dictionary, but rather that it might have arisen through the Lowlands' rich military history.
After all, all soldiers drink heartily when on leave and when paid. Pay days were few for ordinary soldiers of the past, and it would have been natural to criticise an enemy army for being as drunk as one's own, especially if one hadn't been paid oneself!
Incidentally, what we call 'French windows' the French call 'les fenetres Anglaises' - English windows!
..and what we call a French letter is called a capote anglaise in French!
As for "it was Greek to me", (no 'all') Casca uses it when describing a Cicero speech, drawing attention to his lack of comprehension compared to those people who understood Cicero's speech (or affected to). IMO, it serves two-fold: to show that Casca is a man of action not an intellectual, and to make a sly dig at those who seem to understand another language , while, perhaps, remaining ignorant.: a joke that would have been appreciated by Shakespeare's audience. It's also a nice inversion of the Greek idea that people who don't speak Greek were barbarians. Iappreciate that it doesn't help very much with the original question though.
As for "it was Greek to me", (no 'all') Casca uses it when describing a Cicero speech, drawing attention to his lack of comprehension compared to those people who understood Cicero's speech (or affected to). IMO, it serves two-fold: to show that Casca is a man of action not an intellectual, and to make a sly dig at those who seem to understand another language , while, perhaps, remaining ignorant.: a joke that would have been appreciated by Shakespeare's audience. It's also a nice inversion of the Greek idea that people who don't speak Greek were barbarians. Iappreciate that it doesn't help very much with the original question though.
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