Quizzes & Puzzles9 mins ago
Question on derivative
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where did the words "innit" and "man" derive from when ebonically talking. I know that "innit" is obv short for "isn't it" and that's short for "is not it" but that doesn't seem to then make sense?
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For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.It's obviously been around in speech for longer, but the earliest recorded use of 'innit' in writing dates back only to the late 1950s. I'm not sure why you feel it doesn't make sense, as it is just elision of the underlined letters as follows: is not it and a duplication of the 'n' to distinguish it from 'in it' and to indicate that it is pronounced as in 'winning' rather than as in 'dining'.
'Man' has been used as a mode of address for centuries, but - as currently used - I imagine it to be of West Indian origin.
(I like the Eskimo reference, C!)
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