Property Law Essay Question
'The Doctrine of Notice now plays a much smaller role in relation to unregistered land than it did before 1925. In registered landm it plays no part at all - not even with regard to the rights of those in actual occupation.'
Critically analyse the above statement, illustrating your answer by reference to decided cases.
Basically, this is my coursework question concerning the doctrine of notice. I am actually stuck on this question, i have some idea of how to answer it, but the last part baffles me!
So far i have started off with a brief outline of what is registered and unregistered land and the doctrine of notice and what different forms there are.
For my main body, i have gone on to explain how the transfer of property occured pre 1925 and explained how the doctrine of notice played its role with regard to unregistered land. Then i explained how the 1925 legislation has limited the use of the doctrine of notice and described what mechanisms were put into place i.e. overreaching, which eradicated the role of the doctrine of notice, still concerning unregistered land. I then explained the small role notice plays with unregistered land and how it is slowly diminishing as more and more properties are becoming registered, and its use is becoming more rare.
I have now hit my wall, i have to explain why the doctrine of notice does not play a part in relation to registered land especially with regard to the rights of those in actual occupation. I understand what actual occupation is, but the new legislation Land Registration Act in 2002 is ever so confusing, and I have no idea as to whether the doctrine of notice plays a part or not in actual occupation.
The word limit is 3000 words, and I am currently on 2300 words. Can anyone help me, as I have tried and tried to understand this area to no avail, I feel like quitting, all because of Land Law...such a boring module! <