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King James I and Divine Right
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Why did King James I of England not rule by divine right. He truly believed in it and published works on the topic. I cannot seem to find any information on why he did not rule in this manner. Please provide links or cite the works that you use so I can look it up for my research.
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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Divine_right_of_k ings
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Divine_right_of_k ings
James, after banning religious petitions, told the Hampton Court Conference of 1604 that he preferred the status quo with the monarch ruling the church through the bishops, as in the primitive church before the bishops of Rome turned into popes.
If bishops were put out of power, �I know what would become of my supremacy,� James objected. �No bishop, no King. When I mean to live under a presbytery I will go to Scotland again.�
If bishops were put out of power, �I know what would become of my supremacy,� James objected. �No bishop, no King. When I mean to live under a presbytery I will go to Scotland again.�