Why did King James I of England not rule by divine right. He truly believed in it and published works on the topic. I cannot seem to find any information on why he did not rule in this manner. Please provide links or cite the works that you use so I can look it up for my research.
James, after banning religious petitions, told the Hampton Court Conference of 1604 that he preferred the status quo with the monarch ruling the church through the bishops, as in the primitive church before the bishops of Rome turned into popes.
If bishops were put out of power, �I know what would become of my supremacy,� James objected. �No bishop, no King. When I mean to live under a presbytery I will go to Scotland again.�
The same reason I don't rule my street by divine right: the neighbours have other ideas. To enforce personal rule you'd need an army, and you'd have to pay them, and where would the money come from? The main thing the Stuarts needed parliament for was to provide them with money by agreeing taxes.