'He and I went ' is correct . 'I and he went' is not, in the sense that it's not what native speakers say. Is there some 'rule' of grammar which dictates this? And what dictates the order in 'The falling masonry hit me and him but missed the children..' and 'hit him and me but...' ?' 'Hit him and me' sounds better but is 'me and him' incorrect ?
This is just a hangover from the days when politeness dictated that one put oneself last in virtually all situations; accordingly, the 'oneself' words such as 'I' and 'me' followed the 'others' words such as 'him' and 'the children'. Reversing these sequences would not so much be 'wrong' as just unconventional usage...even in today's self-centred world.
I should have added that, in the masonry situation, I would have used only the 'him and me' construction - not the 'me and him' one for the reason stated above.
This is one of my pet hates and I even hear their incorrect useage on television and on the radio and even from presenters and broadcasters. It really irritates me. I was given a book last Christmas from my daughter entitled "My Grammar and I (or should that be 'Me'?" I also have Lynn Truss's book "Eats Shoots and Leaves". Ever heard of it? I am a pedant without doubt!
Yes, up with the pedants! I could rant on about English usage endlessly. I am always correcting my grandchildren but they don't seem to get it even when I spell it out, especially "I haven't got none". I say "If you haven't got none then it means you have got some". Then I get a bewildered look ....
I consider it wrong to put yourself before others in the sentence, because my primary teacher considered it wrong. What is wrong doesn't suddenly become right just because I've finished attending school.
That said it is fractionally better than me and him (for most cases).