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Can a company market a product as their new concept and then sell a product as a their new product if they learned about the idea, plan for it before from another party?

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Curiouswatcher | 15:22 Sun 19th Sep 2010 | Criminal
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I have just read about the term "fraud by false representation" on a UK website. I seek to learn more about its meaning, application, consequences. Can a company operating in the UK and in Europe market a product as their new concept and then as their new product in the UK and in Europe if they already knew of the idea, work, product before from another party in another country outside of the UK and Europe, who they did not credit publicly? If that kind of activity took place might it be a form of fraud by false representation? What might be the consequences if a company did carry out such an action?
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Depends on the product and the calibre of the barristers they can employ. It's sometimes worth companies risking actions being brought as the profit from the service or product can far outweigh the legal implications.
15:25 Sun 19th Sep 2010
I read this twice and still can't understand it.
Depends on the product and the calibre of the barristers they can employ. It's sometimes worth companies risking actions being brought as the profit from the service or product can far outweigh the legal implications.
Is the idea/product subject to copyright?
I think you are saying that a company in the UK is marketing a product, but it's not their original idea, they cribbed it from someone else outside Europe?
If so I think it will depend on if the original designed patented the product in the UK - if they didn't, then it may be that someone else can take the idea and start to sell it in the UK as their own.
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Yes the idea, product is subject to copyright.

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Can a company market a product as their new concept and then sell a product as a their new product if they learned about the idea, plan for it before from another party?

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