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bank loan

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kopend | 13:02 Tue 11th Oct 2005 | Business & Finance
4 Answers

i need advice on this problem

my husband took out a bank loan and signed my signature on the agreement.

i didnt know anything about this until he passed away, i refused to pay beacause i didnt sign it, but  they say i am liable beacause i signed an agreement in 1984 with the same bank , that if anything happened to each other, the other half takes on the debt.

anyone else ever heard of this?

i could prove i didnt sign the loan recently. with a handwritting expert

any advise

thanks

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I'd contact your local Citizens Advice Bureau.

It sounds like they took out a guarantee & indemnity in 1984 - this would make you jointly and severally liable.

If the agreeements taken out in future are unregulated (byt he consumer credit act), then they may be able to pursue you for the debt even if you didn't sign the new agreement.

If I were you, I would request copies of all the relevant paperwork from the Bank and as spudqueen suggests go to your local CAB  - the number will be in the phone book.

The loan was taken out fraudulently and that makes the bank the victim. If your husband made the payements then they cannot claim you knew about the loan, is this the case? The bank are trying to claim that the loan was legitimately made to your husband when clearly it is not, I would therefore conclude that the agreement you signed in 1984 is not relevant here. Now if he took out the loan himself, all above board then they would have a case. The source of the loan payemnts here is important because depending on the method the bank may well claim that you implicitly agreed if you made or knew about any of the payments.
And whilst you are at it you can challenge the validity of any "agreement" that the bank claim you signed in 1984, (if you actually signed it) unless you were given independent advice at the time. There are many cases where banks have been unable to rely on similar documents. Consult a solicitor,

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