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nextqueen | 12:53 Mon 15th Aug 2011 | Body & Soul
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is there a difference between saying ' you are an insecure and irrational young woman' compared to saying ' you are seemingly an insecure and ....? does the first one accuse outright whereas the second one implies and you are saying could be or, are both the same in your eyes? lm looking for implications of slander basically, not me btw!
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to me the first is straight out saying you are insecure etc, the second is saying you come across as that but might not be

IMO
agreed
They are different. The first is worded as a statement of fact, the second is of an individual's opinion based on appearances.
I disagree. The message is clearly the same. Seemingly is being used as a euphemism for evidently.
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so with regards to slander, would the second phrase appear to be slander, doesnt seemingly mean you seem it, appear to be like this/that but not necessarily so?
I would agree with OG and fluff.
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but Old Geezer if its an opinion, surely you are still accusing that person of being that way?
is the young woman in question insecure and irrational? if she is, it's not slander
has she lost anything as a result of the accusation? If not, it's not slander
if she takes someone to court and says it is slander and not her actual character but she cant prove it, then surely it is still an accusation against someone seemingly or not and so it is slander imo. surely you have to prove it?
It doesn't matter. This is merely an opinion of someone's and is not slander.
Eg I could say ' David Cameron is a moron'- it may not be a fact but itis my opinion and is not slander.
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Nox i would say that is slander whereas if you said he was seemingly a moron then it leaves room for doubt dont you think? just throwing out ideas here as im not sure myself.

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