Father getting married.

Foxley | 05:55 Mon 14th May 2012 | Law

38 Answers

My mother passed away nearly 17 years ago when I was 16 and I was left half of the house in trust at the time but I am now a full owner.
My father and I now own half each and we are tennants in common.
My father has announced he is getting married.
The house we own is worth about £750,000 and the house she owns is only worth about £160,000 so she is not in a position to buy my half.
My queries are:

Do I have to formally inform her I own half of the house?.
I know my father could will his half of the house to her. Would she have a right to stay in the house in the event of Dad passing away before her?.
In the event of a divorce is there any danger of me losing my part of the house.

Foxley

Returning goods

Anyone know the possible penalties for insider trading?

Answers

21 to 38 of 38

First Previous 1 2

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by Foxley. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.

snags

''Must keep track of one's names..... ''

What happens when you have two windows open each under a different user name...

EcclesCake

Can someone please tell me what the point of these threads is?

Mick-Talbot

Omsk @ this thread

Kay

Mick-Talbot

flump

Pmsl

Er... Kay xx

bednobs

Amysullivan/martinbev58/kaypar/foxley/janegra
y/sueday50/sharp70
and so on and so on i have NO idea why on earth you want to write all these questions and answers re care homes/tenants in common/moving in with you mother/father/nhs funding/people wanting you to change your will so that you can answer them yourself in another name but just stop already will you?

Mick-Talbot

Sorry bednobs:0(

Mick-Talbot

Oops

Kay

FredPuli43

Are you a law student? Can't think why anyone would keep asking such questions, unless they were doing a course in family law, equity, or land law.
When the father marries, that puts an end to any will he has made, unless it's expressed as being made in contemplation of the marriage, and he then becomes intestate until he makes a new one. A tenant in common always has the right to apply to the court to force a sale, which might be refused if the other owner is living in the house. It's not now automatic that one owner can sell as of right. Nothing else to add to what has been said.

EcclesCake

Out of interest....why has the 'Gotcha' post been pulled but the thread and poster are still here?

pastafreak

@ snags.....it helps if the right hand knows what the left hand is doing.

Clearly,'Kay' has not perfected this...LMAO....

AMYSULLIVAN

Hi Foxley

Personally I think it would be best if your jointly owned house and the ladies house is sold and they buy a more modest price house / bungalow say around £500,000.
If your father stayed in the present house and left his half of the house to his future wife you may have to apply for a court order for it to be sold and as FredPauli43 has said this might not be granted.
From the future wife's point of view she would probably not want to have to sell up and leave and start again if she is elderly and from your point of view you would not want your money tied up for what could be many years after your fathers death.

Amy

craft1948

lol lol here's another one...................

Messi_Ten

My dad met a woman at a club and within a couple of weeks she was asking if he owned his house and had he made a will. Should I be worried about this situation?