Foreign Office Asks Public Schools For...
News7 mins ago
No best answer has yet been selected by Natalie00. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.If your husband has been made bankrupt personally (as opposed to the limited company being in receivership) then I think you will find that he would have had to declare his part ownership of the house to the Official Receiver (OR). If so, his interest will almost certainly have vested in the OR (who will - probably about a year after the bankruptcy - insist on the house being sold if this has not already been done) and he won't be free to sell the house unless the OR agrees to this. It may even be (but I am not at all sure about it) that the OR would have to sign the papers and not your husband. I assume you have a solicitor dealing with the house sale and he/she should be able to advise you on this.
It may even be possible for you or the solicitor to approach the OR to try to get agreement to a sale. The OR has an interest in maximising the sale price because your husband's share of the equity will go to the OR for the creditors and this share will be larger if you sell before repossession.