Donate SIGN UP

Public Footpath

Avatar Image
davidanthony | 23:49 Thu 21st May 2015 | Civil
2 Answers
If a footpath has been used across private land for 10 years, under current legislation, does it automatically become a ' public footpath' ?
Gravatar

Answers

1 to 2 of 2rss feed

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by davidanthony. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.
Section 31(1), Highways Act 1980 states:
"Where a way over any land, other than a way of such a character that use of it by the public could not give rise at common law to any presumption of dedication, has been actually enjoyed by the public as of right and without interruption for a full period of 20 years, the way is to be deemed to have been dedicated as a highway unless there is sufficient evidence that there was no intention during that period to dedicate it"
well done BC

I thought that it dedicated use by adverse possession had been stopped and it had to be registered by 1967 or you were screwed

1 to 2 of 2rss feed

Do you know the answer?

Public Footpath

Answer Question >>