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Adultery

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fabtec | 17:24 Tue 06th Dec 2005 | Business & Finance
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If someone is filing for divorce on the grounds of adultery does the name of the person who someone committed adultery with have to be named, or can it just be accepted and admitted that adultery was committed

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The other person does not have to be named. My husband wanted a quick divorce from his first wife, so he said he had committed adultery with an un-named woman.

Yes - adultery with an un-named woman is the usual thing now and the idea of 'blame' or 'guilty parties' is not really taken into account. The thing is you have to wait two years otherwise, so lots of people say it is adultery when in fact no adultery ever took place, just to speed things along.
I believe there are actual advantages to NOT naming the third party and it is usually best not to.

No, I don't think the other person has to be named.

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