Donate SIGN UP

Changing Mortgage details without both parties available

Avatar Image
vbeller | 16:05 Tue 21st Nov 2006 | Law
1 Answers
My new husband was previously married and the house we live in has a mortgage in both my husband and ex wifes name. As part of the divorce it states that the house will remain as my husbands dwelling until it is sold when the proceeds wil be split. We don't want to sell however we do want the mortgage to be in both our names instead. The ex wife hasn't paid any contribution towards the house for the past 15 years when they first separated, has moved to Spain and is non contactable except with great difficulty through Spanish solicitors. Where do we stand or what can we do? We know that she will be entitled to some payout but how do we work this out?
Gravatar

Answers

Only 1 answerrss feed

Best Answer

No best answer has yet been selected by vbeller. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.

For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.
Its not a question of the mortgage being in this name or that name. Fact is that he and she are joint owners and, as such, no change can be made to the ownership, and hence the mortgage, without her consent. You will have to make a stonger effort to contact the joint owner. After all, what would you do if the house did get sold.. Where would you send the money? With the right agencies, and if he really wanted to, it is not too difficult.

Only 1 answerrss feed

Do you know the answer?

Changing Mortgage details without both parties available

Answer Question >>

Related Questions

Sorry, we can't find any related questions. Try using the search bar at the top of the page to search for some keywords, or choose a topic and submit your own question.