In answer to your question as to whether this British patient should be treated in the UK, yes.
I find your subsequent question posted at 9:36 quite strange, seeing as other pandemics have not resulted in non-UK nationals being treated here.
It's a really strange question.
Surely you remember SARS and avian flu, and then there was swine flu...
Which of these pandemics resulted in patients being flown (at great cost to the foreign governments) to the UK for treatment?
I understand the thought process behind the original question, and it had debatable merit. But your follow up (where you use a debating tactic of swerving your first question, to come up with another) doesn't really make sense when you look at the most recent pandemics, coupled with government reaction.
Bizarre.