Haven't followed the whole thread, so apologies if I'm repeating points already made.
The legal argument seems to be that Article 50 can't be invoked without the consent of Parliament. I thought that parliamentary consent was implicitly given by the Referendum Bill (on a previous thread I had objected to a poster's use of the phrase "advisory referendum"). I learn now from one of the successful litigants who was being interviewed on TV that, yes, Parliament DID vote for the referendum, but, no, IT WAS NOT agreeing to be bound by the result. What then was the point of a referendum if a vote to leave needed ratification by a group the majority of whom are Remainers? I conclude that the bill was poorly, maybe cynically drafted. I'd like to see Parliament vote now on invoking Article 50. This vote will determine whether the referendum result is honoured or ignored. This has nothing to do with hard, soft, in or out of the single market, or the terms of exit (arguing for "more clarification of the government's stance" on any of these issues - as in Corbyn's schoolboy list of 170 questions - as a precondition for approving the invocation of Article 50 is a device to delay or prevent Brexit). The referendum was about quitting the EU, not the details attending the withdrawal . Cameron to the people: "Do you want to remain in the European Community or leave it? We [the Government] will implement your decision.".
We've had the legal case, now let's have the moral one. If Cameron's promise was as empty as the man, then let Parliament now ensure the promise IS honoured. If the vote goes against the government then let's have a correcly drafted bill for a second referendum.
PS: If May had invoked Article 50 immediately it wouldn't have changed the law. Would she now be obliged legally to withdraw the resignation notice? Is there provision in the article for that?